SORTH Practice Test

1Multiple ChoiceSelect all that apply

A 45-year-old man sustains a closed tibial pilon fracture with significant articular comminution and soft tissue swelling. Which of the following are accepted principles in the staged management of this injury? (Choose two.)

A.Immediate definitive open reduction and internal fixation of the articular surface within 24 hours
B.Initial spanning external fixation across the ankle joint to allow soft tissue recovery
C.Definitive ORIF of the articular surface typically performed after soft tissue condition improves (usually 10 - 21 days)
D.Primary below-knee amputation as the standard of care for all pilon fractures with comminution

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